MRCP revision for free - Home

Question category: Gastroenterology

A 55 year old gentleman was discharged one week ago following treatment for neutropenic sepsis. He has been having chemotherapy for colorectal carcinoma. He now presents with watery diarrhoea although he has had some blood stained stools and abdominal cramps. He looks unwell and is hypotensive and tachycardic. He has generalised abdominal tenderness although there is no evidence of peritonism. Bloods reveal an elevated CRP and normal WCC. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?


Please log in to record your progress.


Sign up for free to track your progress